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Examination and Test Questions


Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics

Multiple Choice Questions


The following is true regarding the pharmacokinetics of phenobarbital.

1.    The half-life in adults is up to 100 hours

2.    25 % of unchanged drug is excreted in the urine

3.    The therapeutic range is 10 – 40 ug.ml -1

4.    Time taken to reach steady state condition is 10 – 60 days

5.    Bioavailability after oral administration is 70 – 90 %

A = 1,2     B = 1,2,4          C = 1,2,3,4             D = 1,2,5    E = 1,2,3,4,5

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Correct “concept – description combination” includes:

1.    Passive diffusion : a protein carrier is required to transport a drug

2.    Non-polar : drugs can migrate easily through a cell membrane

3.    Rapid absorption : advantage of the sublingual route of administering a drug

4.    Potency : indication of the amount of drug needed to produce an effect of given magnitude

5.    Pharmacodynamics : what a drug does to the body and how drugs bind to receptors

A = 3,4,5         B = 1,4,5   C = 2,3,5      D = 2,3,4,5  E = 1,2,3,4,5

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True statements:

1.    Rapidly metabolized drugs (by the liver) will reach the systemic circulation at a low concentration

2.    Coating and binders have no effect on the dissolution of drugs

3.    The albumin-drug complex could sustain the plasma drug concentration during an extended time

4.    The chemical nature of a drug has no effect on the bio-availability of a drug

5.    Non-polar drugs migrate freely through cell membranes

 A = 1,3,5        B = 2,4,5    C = 1,3,4,5       D = 2,3,5      E = 2,3,4,5

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List the pharmacokinetic parameters of mebendazole.  

The following is the correct sequential pathways for the movement of a drug through the body:

1.    Metabolism – Administration – Absorption – Elimination – Distribution

2.    Absorption – Administration – Elimination – Metabolism – Distribution

3.    Distribution – Elimination – Absorption – Administration – Metabolism

4.    Administration – Absorption – Distribution – Elimination – Metabolism

5.    Administration – Absorption – Distribution – Metabolism – Elimination

A = 1               B = 2                   C = 3                  D = 4                    E = 5

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 Advantages of the sublingual route of administering a drug include:

1.    Slow absorption

2.    Convenience of administration

3.    Low incidence of infection

4.    Avoidance of the harsh G-I conditions

5.    Exposure to first-pass metabolism

A = 2,3,4        B = 1,2,3   C = 2,4,5      D = 3,4,5      E = 1,3,4,5

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The following are true regarding the minor routes of drug administration:

1.    Albuterol (salbutamol) can be administered through inhalation

2.    Desmopressin can be administered intranasally

3.    The physical property of the skin has no effect on a drug administered transdermally

4.    Drugs administered through the rectal route experience maximum bioconversion by the liver

5.    Clotrimazole can be applied topically for the treatment of dermatophytosis

 A = 1,2,3          B = 1,2,5           C = 2,4,5      D = 2,3,4,5   E = All of the above

 ___________________________________________________________________

 The bioavailability of a drug can be increased by:

1.    First pass metabolism

2.    Increase the polarity of the drug

3.    Exposure of the drug to low pH-conditions in the stomach

4.    Decrease the polarity of drugs

5.    Ensure that the drug is either a weak acid or weak base

 A = 1,3,5          B = 2,3,5   C = 4,5                 D = 3,4,5      E = 1,2,4,5

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 Lipid soluble drugs are metabolized in the liver using two general sets of reactions called phase I and phase II. During phase I:

1.    Lipophilic drugs are converted into more polar molecules

2.    The P-450 system is used to catalysed the metabolism of the drug

3.    Phenobarbital is indirectly responsible for increased biotransformation of drugs

4.    Omeprazole can inhibit isozymes responsible for the metabolism of warfarin

5.    The therapeutic effect of drugs will be decreased

A = 1,2,3 B = 3,4,5  C = 1  D = None of the above E. All of the above

 ___________________________________________________________________

The following statements are true:

1.    Fifty percent of the steady state concentration is reached at half the time needed to reach the steady state condition

2.    The half-life of a drug is the time required to change the drug concentration by 50 % and it takes 4 half-lives before a drug reaches steady state conditions

3.    The elimination of a drug starts only when the drug has reached a steady state concentration

4.    Pharmacokinetics refer to the absorption and distribution of drugs only

5.    Bioavailability refers to the chemical changed form of a drug which reaches the systemic circulation

A = 1,2        B = 2,3,4           C = 1,2,3,4        D = 3,4          E = 3,4,5

 ___________________________________________________________________

Regarding the steady state drug level in the blood:

1.    The steady state concentration of a drug is reached when the rate of drug infusion equals the rate of drug elimination

2.    When the infusion rate of a drug is halved the plasma concentration achieved at steady state will also be halved

3.    The steady state concentration of a drug is directly proportional to the clearance of the drug

4.    A liver or kidney disease will decrease the steady state concentration of the infused drug

5.    At steady state levels no drugs are eliminated from the body

A = 2,4    B = 1,4,5  C = 3,4,5      D = 1,2        E = 1,3,5

 ___________________________________________________________________

The chemical interaction between a receptor and a drug can be:

1.    Achieved by electrostatic forces that are formed due to the attraction between opposite electric charges

2.    Achieved by hydrogen bonds that are weaker than covalent bonds.

3.    Achieved by van der Waals forces that are weak and short-range forces

4.    Represented by the key-lock concept where the drug is represented by the lock

5.    Represented by the induced fit model where the receptor changes its structure until the drug fits.

A = 1,2,4         B = 2,3,4,5       C = 1,2,3,5        D = 3,4,5      E = All of the above

 ___________________________________________________________________

Regarding ligand-gated ion channel receptors:

1.    Responsible for the flow of ions across cell membranes

2.    Response is slow with a duration of a few minutes

3.    Example of these receptors include nicotinic receptors

4.    Benzodiazepines inhibits the action of GABA-receptors

5.    When stimulated by acetylcholine the cholinergic nicotinic receptors allow sodium and calcium to enter the cell

A = 1,2       B = 2,3,4            C = 1,4,5    D = 1,3,5    E = All of the above

 ___________________________________________________________________

 Regarding intracellular receptors:

1.    Activation time of these receptors are longer than the activation period of other receptors

2.    The activated drug-receptor complex migrates to the nucleus of a cell where it results in gene expression

3.    In contrast to the name of this receptor it can also exist on the outside of the cell

4.    This receptor mostly binds to non-polar drugs

5.    The response time of this receptor is longer than all the other receptors

A = 2,3    B = 3,4,5    C = 1,2,4,5       D = 2,3,4,5   E = All of the above

 ___________________________________________________________________

Regarding spare receptors and desensitization of receptors:

1.    β-adrenoreceptors (5 – 10%) in the human heart are spared

2.    Insulin receptors (99%) are spare receptors

3.    Spare receptors are the result of the ability of certain receptors to amplify signal duration and amplification

4.    Tachyphylaxis indicates the diminishing effect of a receptor due to repeated administration of a drug to the receptor

5.    Down-regulating of a receptor indicates that the receptor becomes less susceptible for a drug.

A = 1,4    B = 2,3   C = 2,3,4      D = 1,3,4,5   E = All of the above

 ___________________________________________________________________

The following descriptions are correct:

1.    Agonist: drugs that decreases the activation of another drug or endogenous ligand

2.    Potency: measure the amount of drug necessary to produce an effect of given magnitude

3.    Efficacy: ability of a drug to causea physiological response when it interacts with a receptor

4.    Therapeutic index: measurement of the safety of a drug

5.    EC 50-value: concentration of a drug produces a response equal to fifty percent of the maximum response of the drug

A = 1,3,4         B = 1,2,3,4         C = 2,3,4,5      D = 1,4,5       E = All of the above

  The following statements regarding the pathways of drug movement and modification in the body are true.

1.    The first and non-reversible pathway is known as absorption.

2.    The third pathway is when drugs are removed from the body through a process described as elimination

3.    During the second pathway drugs are metabolized in the liver.

4.    The reversible distribution pathway is responsible

5.    Drugs administered to the body are exposed to four pathways of which the elimination route is the only reversible route.

A = 1,4          B = 1,2               C = 1,4,5                D = 2,4                E = 2,4,5

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Advantages of the oral route of drug administering includes:

1.    Drugs are exposed to the gastro-intestinal environment

2.    Drugs are easily self-administered

3.    Systemic infections are limited

4.    Drugs are exposed to a high extent of first-pass metabolism in the liver.

5.    Overdoses can be overcome with antidotes such as activated charcoal

A = 2,3,4          B = 3,4,5             C = 3,4             D = 2,3,5         E = 2,3,4,5

 __________________________________________________________________

 The following statement(s) is/are true:

1.          Inhalation is a route used to administered drugs that are gases or dispersed in an aerosol

2.          During the intranasal route a drug is administered directly into the nose

3.          The direct transfer of drugs in the cerebrospinal fluid is known as the intraventricular route

4.          Tropicamide is a drug that is administered topically into the eye to dilute the pupil

5.          The rate of drug absorption during transdermal administration is determined by the physical properties of the skin at the position of application.

A = 1       B= 1,2    C = 1,2,3      D = 1,2,3,4   E = All of the above

 ___________________________________________________________________

Regarding the transport of a drug from the gastrointestinal tract.

1.          The concentration gradient across the cell membrane separating two body compartments has no influence on the movement of a drug across the membrane

2.          A drug carrier is involved in the movement of all drugs across a cell membrane

3.          Lipid soluble drugs move across a cell membrane due to the solubility of these drugs in the cell membrane

4.          Water soluble drugs can only move against concentration differences

5.          Water soluble drugs as well as lipid soluble drugs can only enter a cell by active carrier mediated transport.

A = 1,2            B = 3            C = 4           D = 4,5        E = 1,3,4,5

 ___________________________________________________________________

The following descriptions are correct.

1.          Exocytosis – the engulfment of a drug by the cell membrane and transport of it into the cell

2.          Active transport – movement of a drug across a cell membrane without a carrier against the concentration gradient

3.          Absorption of a drug – transfer of a drug from its site of administration to the bloodstream

4.          pKa-value – pH at which the concentration of the ionized and non-ionized form of the drug are equal

5.          Lipid soluble drugs – drugs entering the cell by moving across the biological membrane and not through the aqueous channels.

A = 1,2,3          B = 2,3     C = 3,4        D = 2,3,4      E = 3,4,5

____________________________________________________________

Regarding the pharmacokinetics of propranolol:

1.          Co-administration with food enhance bio-availability

2.          Highly lipophilic thus achieving high concentrations in the brain

3.          Effective plasma concentration is between 10 – 100 ng/ml -1

4.          Toxic levels are associated with plasma concentrations above 2000 ng.ml -1

5.          Peak plasma levels are achieved 5 – 6 hours after ingestion.

A = 1,2,3   B = 3,4     C = 1,2,3,4     D = 3,4,5      E = All of the above              

__________________________________________________________________

The following statements are true:

1.          Drugs can bind to plasma proteins which would increase the activity of the drug

2.          The intracellular volume is the major water component of the body in which drugs can dissolve

3.           Low molecular weight drugs with both non-polar and polar sections can move through both the endothelial slit junction and cell membrane

4.           Any factor which lead to an increase in the volume of distribution can cause an increase in the half-life of the drug

5.           If the V D-volume of a drug is large, most of the drug is in the extraplasmic space.

A = 2,3            B = 3,4,5 C= 1,4,5     D = 2,3,4      E = 1,3,4,5

_________________________________________________________________

An increased drug metabolism results in the following:

1.            Decreased drug plasma concentration

2.            Increased drug plasma concentration

3.            Increased therapeutic drug effect

4.            Decreased therapeutic drug effect

5.            Decreased drug activity if the metabolite is active

A = 1,3       B = 2,3               C = 3,4         D = 4,5        E = 1,5

 _____________________________________________________________

The half-life of a drug is,

1.          Increased by diminished renal plasma flow caused by heart failure

2.          Increased by increased drug metabolism

3.          Decreased by increased hepatic blood flow

4.          Decreased by decreased protein binding

5.          Increased by a condition such as haemorrhage

A = 1,3,4  B = 2,4,5   C = 1,4,5   D = 4,5 E = 2,3,4,5

 ___________________________________________________________________

The following statements are true:

1.    Drugs can bind to plasma proteins which would increase the activity of the drug

2.    The intracellular volume is the major water component of the body in which drugs can dissolve

3.    Low molecular weight drugs with both non-polar and polar sections can move through both the endothelial slit junction and cell membrane

4.    Any factor which lead to an increase in the volume of distribution can cause an increase in the half-life of a drug

5.    If the V D-value of a drug is large, most of the drug is in the extraplasmic space

A = 2,3    B = 3,4,5  C = 1,4,5        D = 2,3,4      E = 1,3,4,5

 ___________________________________________________________________

The following statements regarding the steady-state condition of a drug are true.

1.      A steady-state condition of a drug is reached when the rate of drug elimination equals the rate of drug elimination equals the rate of drug administration

2.      If the infusion rate of a drug is increased by 5 times the drug concentration will increase by 2,5 times

3.      The steady-state concentration is directly proportional to the clearance of the drug

4.      If the drug clearance potential of the liver or kidney is decreased the steady-state concentration of the drug will decrease

5.      Increased metabolism of a drug will decrease the steady-state concentration of the drug

A = 3,4        B = 1,5    C = 2,4,5        D = 3,4,5      E = 1,3,4,5

___________________________________________________________________

The following are true regarding receptors and drugs.

1.   With the lock-key concept the drug represents the key and receptor the lock

2.   The induced fit model suggests that the receptor will change its structure in the presence of the drug until it fits the drug

3. Van der Waals forces are relative weak, short-range forces of attraction between a drug and receptor

4. Proteins are major receptors responsible for transducing extracellular signals from drugs into intracellular responses

5.   Extracellular receptors are classified as a major receptor group for drugs to interact with

A = 1,2,3        B = 2,3,4      C = 1,2,3,4         D = 1,5        E = 1,2,4,5

___________________________________________________________________

Regarding receptors.

1.    Benzodiazepines cause a total inhibition of the action of GABA-receptors

2.    Cholinergic nicotinic receptors are stimulated by acetyl choline and these receptors allow sodium and calcium ions to enter a cell

3.    Enzyme-linked receptors exhibit cytosolic enzyme activity

4.    Tachyphylaxis is a term used to describe the phenomenon when repeated administration of a drug results in a diminished effect

5.    Receptors have no effect on the quantitative relations between dose and pharmacological effect.

A = 3,5   B = 1,4,5      C = 2,3,4   D = 1,3,4,5   E = All of the above

 ___________________________________________________________________

The following descriptions are true.

1.    Partial agonist: efficacies are greater than zero, but less than that of a full agonist

2.    Functional agonist – act at a complete separate receptor with an initiating effect that is functionally opposite to those of the agonist

3.    Antagonist – when binds to a site where the agonist binds the interaction is non-competitive or allosteric

4.    Potency – the measure of the amount of drug necessary to produce an effect of a given magnitude

5.     Efficacy – the function of a drug’s biological effect on a system and is the maximum response produced by the drug

A = 1,2,3   B = 4,5        C = 2,3,4      D = 1,2,3,4   E = All of the above

___________________________________________________________________

 Write five (5) advantages of the sublingual route of administering a drug.

Name 4 factors that would influence the bio-availability of a drug.


Pharmacokinetic parameters include:

1.    absorption

2.    polarity

3.    elimination

4.    distribution

5.    metabolism

A = 1,2,5     B = 1,3,4,5   C = 2,4,5  D = 3,4,5     E = All of the above

________________________________________________________

Permeable cell membranes:

1. Water soluble drugs known as non-polar medicines will pass through slits in the cell membrane

2. Energy is essential for the passive diffusion of drugs across cell membranes

3. Passive movement of drugs through a cell membrane takes place when the drugs are migrating from a high concentration compartment to a low concentration compartment

4. A protein carrier is needed to assist non-polar drugs when migrating against the concentration gradient across a cell membrane

5. Cell membranes are mostly non-polar of nature

 A =1,2      B =3,4,5     C =2,4,5         D =3,5        E = 1,3,4

________________________________________________________

The following statements are true:         

1.       The procedure of delivering a drug under the skin is known as the sublingual route

2.       An acidic environment will favour the migration of a weak acid drug through a cell membrane

3.       The binding of drugs to plasma proteins slows the transfer of drugs out of the vascular component

4.       Non-polar drugs can enter the brain by passing through the endothelial cells of the capillaries of the CNS  

5.       Two similar drugs are therapeutically equivalent if they have comparable efficacy and safety            

A =2,3      B =2,4,5    C =2,3,4,5     D =1,2,3,4,5  E = All of the above

________________________________________________________

The half-life of a drug can be increased by:

1.   Diminished renal flow as result of a heart failure

2.   Decreased extraction ratio as in renal disease

3.   Increased metabolism

4.   Increased protein binding

5.   Increased metabolism

A = 1,2 B = 1,2,3 C = 2,3,4 D = 1,2,4 E = 3,4,5

_______________________________________________________

Correct statements regarding the movement of drugs (medicines) through the body:

    1.  Distribution of a drug is an irreversible process between plasma and fluids in the body

    2. An overdose of orally administered drugs can be removed from the body

    3. The sole path of eliminating drugs from the body is through urine

    4. The most complete procedure of administering a drug is through the IV-route

    5. Metabolized drugs always result in bio-inactive ligands

A = 2,3,4                  B = 1,4,5    C = 1,3,5          D = 2,4,5     E = 1,2,4,5

________________________________________________________

The following are true regarding the bioavailability of a drug:

 1.    The particle size of a drug has no effect on its bioavailability

2.    Drugs administered through the IV-route will exhibit the highest bioavailability

3.    First-pass through the liver will increase the bioavailability of a drug

4.    The pH-conditions in the stomach could have a negative effect on the bioavailability of a drug taken orally

5.    Bioavailability is classified as a pharmacokinetic parameter of a drug.

           A =1,4      B =2,4,5     C =2,4      D = 3,4       E = 1,3,5

________________________________________________________

The following statements are true regarding drug movement and modification in the body.

1.    Second pathway: reversible distribution of drugs from the bloodstream into the interstitial and intracellular fluids

2.    Third pathway: drugs are metabolized by the liver and tissues

3.    First pathway: drugs are bio-converted by enzymes before movement into plasma

4.    Fourth pathway: drugs are removed from body in urine, bile and faeces

5.    Fifth pathway: drugs not metabolized in the liver accumulates in the plasma

A = 1,3,4   B = 1,2,4   C = 2,4,5  D = 1,2,3,4  E = All of above

________________________________________________________

The pKa-value of a drug is,

1.   an indication of the pH of the drug

2.  The pH at which the concentrations of the ionized and non-ionized forms of the drug are equal

3.   The pH when the concentration of the ionized form of the drug is higher than the concentrations of the non-ionized form of the drug

4.   The pH when the concentration of the ionized form of the drug is lower than the concentrations of the non-ionized form of the drug

5.    An indication of the solubility of a drug.

 A = 1        B = 2        C = 3          D = 4       E = 5

________________________________________________________

Descriptive Questions:

Write five (5) advantages of the sublingual route of administering a drug

Name 4 factors that would influence the bio-availability of a drug.      

 

Autonomic Nervous System

Multiple Choice Questions


Atropine is contraindicated in the following conditions:

1.       Urinary obstruction

2.       Organophosphate poisoning

3.       Asthma

4.       Glaucoma

5.       Excessive salivation

A = 4,5           B = 1,3          C = 1,4          D = 3,5          E = 3,4

 ___________________________________________________________

Succinylcholine:

1.       Its effect can be counteracted with neostigmine

2.       It is a competitive antagonist at the nicotinic receptor

3.       Malignant hyperthermia is one its adverse effect

4.       Has a rapid onset of action?

5.       Has a short duration of action

 A = 3,4,5       B = 2,4,5       C = 2,3,4      D = 1,3,5     E = 1,2,5

 ________________________________________________________

Edrophonium is used:

1.       In the treatment of myasthenia gravis

2.       To reverse non-depolarising neuromuscular block

3.       In the treatment of diarrhoea

4.       As an antidote to organophosphates

5.       In the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

A = 1,3,4     B = 1,2,5      C = 2,4,5    D= 1,2,4      E = 2,3,5

_________________________________________________________

Cocaine:

1.       Inhibits monoamine oxidase enzyme

2.       Is a mixed-acting adrenergic agonist

3.       Is an indirect-acting adrenergic agonist

4.       Inhibits the re-uptake of noradrenaline

5.       Is an adrenergic antagonist

A = 4,5        B = 1,3        C = 1,4        D = 3,5        E = 3,4

___________________________________________________________

Mention the adverse effects of β-blockers


Pilocarpine:

1.       Used to treat anaphylactic shock

2.       Can be used to treat xerostomia

3.       Is an indirect-acting cholinergic agonist

4.       Is a tertiary amine

5.       Causes constriction of the pupil

 A = 2,4,5          B = 1,3,4          C=1,4,5        D = 1,2,4        E = 2,3,4

 ___________________________________________________________

Which of the following are correct concerning atenolol?

1.       Used in the management of myasthenia gravis

2.       Selective β1 receptor antagonist

3.       Selective β2 receptor antagonist

4.       Non-selective β receptor antagonist

5.       Used to treat angina

A = 1,4         B = 3,5        C = 2,5        D = 1,2        E = 4,5

 _________________________________________________________

The following are the adverse effects of the cholinergic antagonists:

1.       Glaucoma

2.       Diarrhoea

3.       Urinary retention

4.       Mydriasis

5.       Nausea

A = 2,3         B = 1,2          C =3,4         D= 3,5       E = 1,3

 _______________________________________________________

 Organophosphates:

1.       Are   ganglionic blockers

2.       Increase acetylcholine concentration   at the synapses

3.       Cause   bradycardia

4.       Paralyse   skeletal muscles

5.       Block   nicotinic receptors  

A = 2,3,4          B = 1,2,3        C = 1,4,5   D = 3,4,5     E   = 2,4,5

_________________________________________________________

Release of acetylcholine will:

1.       Increase digestion

2.       Dilate bronchioles

3.       Stimulate the heart

4.       Have no effect on the heart

5.       Constrict the pupil

A = 2,4        B = 2,3        C = 1,2         D = 1,5       E = 4,5

 ________________________________________________________

Doxazocin:

1.      α1-adrenoceptor agonist

2.       Form part of the parasympathetic nervous system

3.       Are found in the somatic nervous system

4.       Decreases resistance to urinary flow

5.       Has a short duration of action

A = 1,3,4        B = 2,3,5           C = 3,4,5      D=2,4,5      E = 1,4,5

 ________________________________________________________

Adrenergic antagonists include:

1.       Prazosin

2.       Ephedrine

3.       Reserpine

4.       Carvedilol

5.       Cocaine

 A = 1,3,4   B = 1,2,5   C = 3,4,5   D=2,3,4   E = 2,3,5

 __________________________________________________________

Tiotropium:

1.       Is a quaternary ammonium compound

2.       Used mainly to treat glaucoma

3.       Is a long acting cholinergic antagonist

4.       Treats chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

5.       Is a long acting ganglionic blocker

A = 1,4,5          B = 2,4,5         C = 1,3,4        D = 1,2,5         E = 3,4,5

____________________________________________________________

Which of the following drugs are cholinergic agonists:

1.       Pseudoephedrine

2.       Cocaine

3.       Dobutamine

4.       Carvedilol

5.       Atenolol

A = 1,3,4         B = 1,2,3       C = 1,3,5        D= 1,2,4     E = 2,3,5

 ___________________________________________________________

The indirect-acting cholinergic receptor agonists:

1.       Can reversibly inhibit the enzyme anticholinesterase

2.       Include pilocarpine and betanechol

3.       Can stimulate the release of acetylcholinesterase from the vesicles

4.       Include atenolol, prazosin and clonidine

5.       Can irreversibly bind to the anticholinesterase enzyme

A = 3,4,5        B = 1,2,3        C = 1,3,5        D = 1,4,5       E = 2,3,4

 ___________________________________________________________

Which of the following are not correct concerning the pharmacokinetics of adrenaline?

1.       Rapid onset

2.       Oral administration

3.       Long duration of action

4.       Metabolized by monoamine oxidase

5.       Excreted in the urine

A = 3,5           B = 2,4         C =1,3         D= 4,5    E = 2,3

 __________________________________________________________

The therapeutic uses of β-blockers include:

1.       Asthma

2.       Hypertension

3.       Diabetes mellitus

4.       Hyperthyroidism

5.       Congestive heart failure

A = 2,4,5          B = 1,2,4         C = 1,3,5     D = 1,2,5     E = 1,4,5

_________________________________________________________

 The following are the adverse effects of the adrenergic agonists:

1.       Mydriasis

2.       Diarrhoea

3.       Urinary retention

4.       Glaucoma

5.       Nausea

A = 2,3            B = 1,2          C = 3, 4       D = 3,5       E = 1,3

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Suxamethonium:

1.       Is a non-competitive neuromuscular junction (NMJ) blocker

2.       Is a depolarizing muscle relaxant

3.       Is a non-depolarizing muscle relaxant

4.       Is a competitive NMJ blocker

5.       Is used as anaesthetics

A = 1,3,4          B = 2,3,4        C = 2,3,5       D = 1,2,5     E = 2,4,5

 __________________________________________________________

 Indirect-acting adrenergic agonists include:

1.       Catechol-O-methyl transferase inhibitors

2.       Amphetamine

3.       Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

4.       Choline esters

5.       Catecholamines

A = 1,3,5         B = 1,4,5        C =2,4,5       D = 2,3,5       E = 1,2,3


The following are alpha adrenergic blocking agents:

1.    Atenolo

2.    Prazosin

3.    Phentolamine

4.    Reserpine

5.    Atenolol

A = 4,5   B = 3,4   C=2,3   D = 3,5   E = 1,2

____________________________________________________

        Oxymetazoline

1.    is a direct - acting adrenergic agonist

  

2.    is a selective β-adrenergic   antagonist

  

3.    is a non-selective β-adrenergic   antagonist

  

4.    is a non-selective adrenergic agonist

  

5.    is a mixed acting adrenergic agonist

A = 1,4   B = 2,3   C = 3,4  D = 1,5   E = 2,5

_____________________________________________________________

The following are therapeutic uses of β-blockers except

1.    hyperthyroidism

2.    hypertension

3.    diabetes mellitus

4.    Asthma

5.    Congestive heart failure

A = 1,4   B = 3,5   C = 1,2  D = 1,5   E = 3,

____________________________________________________________

Ipratropium:

1.    may cause confusion as an adverse effect

2.    is a quaternary ammonium cholinergic antagonist

3.    is used to treat glaucoma

4.    is a passive bronchodilator in COPD and asthma

5.    has a long duration of action

A = 3,5   B = 2,4   C =1,3   D= 4,5   E = 2,3

_______________________________________________________________

 The following are the adverse effects of scopolamine:

1.    Mydriasis

2.    Diarrhoea

3.    Urinary retention

4.    Diaphoresis

5.    Nausea

A = 2,5   B = 1,2   C =1, 4   D= 3,4   E = 1,3

_________________________________________________________

Doxazocin:

1.    can be used to treat diarrhoea

2.    is an irreversible non-selective α-adrenergic antagonist

3.    relieves the effects of benign prostatic hyperplasia

4.    is a selective α1- adrenergic antagonist

35. is a non-selective β-adrenergic antagonist

A = 1,4   B = 2,3   C =3,5   D= 3,4   E = 1,5

 __________________________________________________________

Atracurium:

1.    is used to intubate laryngeal muscles

2.    is a reversible indirect-acting cholinergic agonist

3.    is a depolarizing NMJ blockers

4.    is a direct-acting adrenergic agonist

5.    is safe in patients with liver and renal failure

A = 4,5   B = 1,2   C =3,5   D= 1,5   E = 3,4

 _____________________________________________________________

Echothiophate:

1.    can be used as an antidote for physostigmine

2.    causes constipation as an adverse effect

3.    is a selective α2- adrenergic agonist

4.    is used to treat glaucoma

5.    is an organophosphate

A = 4,5   B = 1,4   C =3, 5   D= 2,4   E = 1,3

__________________________________________________________

 The therapeutic uses of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors include:

1.    Asthma

2.    Myasthenia gravis

3.    Diaphoresis

4.    Reversal of non-depolarising neuromuscular block

5.    Nausea

A = 3,5   B = 1,2   C =1, 4   D= 2,4   E = 2,3

 ______________________________________________________________

Atropine is used pre-operatively to:

1.    Prevent bradycardia

2.    Prevent adverse effects due to administration of suxamethonium

3.    Reduce bronchial secretions

4.    Cause skeletal muscle relaxation

5.    Prevent adrenaline release

A = 1,3,5   B = 2,3,4   C =1,2,3   D= 2,4,5   E = 1,4,5

_____________________________________________________________

The following are short acting β2 agonists:

1.    Formoterol

2.    Adrenaline

3.    Salmeterol

4.    Salbutamol

5.    Terbutaline

A = 1,2,5   B = 1,4,5   C =2,4,5   D = 2,3,4   E = 1,3,4

__________________________________________________________

 Physostigmine:

1.    is contraindicated in urinary obstruction

2.    crosses the blood-brain-barrier

3.    is a muscarinic agonist

4.    is a derivative of atropine

5.    dilates the pupil

A = 1,4   B = 1,2   C =2, 5   D= 2,4   E = 1,5

_____________________________________________________________

  Indicate which of the following drugs may cause a dry mouth:

1.    Acetylcholine

2.    Atropine

3.    Neostigmine

4.    Ipratropium

5.    Scopolamine

A = 1,2,3   B = 1,3,5   C = 3,4,5   D= 2,4,5   E = 2,3,4

 ______________________________________________________________

 Which of the following are examples of direct-acting cholinomimetics

1.    Ipratropium

2.    Doxazocin

3.    Timolol

4.    Pilocarpine

5.    Bethanechol

          A = 1,4   B = 1,2   C = 2,3   D = 3,4   E = 4,5

____________________________________________________________

Which of the following drugs are adrenergic agonists

1.    Pseudoephedrine

2.    Cocaine

3.    Dobutamine

4.    Carvedilol

5.    Atenolol

A = 1,3,4   B = 1,2,3   C = 1,3,5   D= 1,2,4   E = 2,3,5

_____________________________________________________________

The adverse effects of neostigmine include:

1.    confusion

2.    constipation

3.    nausea

4.    urinary retention

5.    diaphoresis.

          A = 2,5   B = 2,3   C = 1,5   D = 4,5   E = 3,5

______________________________________________________________

The following drugs are muscarinic receptor blockers:

1.    Atracurium

2.    Flavoxate

3.    Atropine

4.    Physostigmine

5.    Echothiophate

          A = 2,5   B = 2,3   C = 1,5   D = 4,5   E = 3,5

___________________________________________________________

Which of the following are incorrect about pilocarpine

1.    It is used to treat glaucoma

2.    It can be used to treat xerostomia

3.    It is a cholinergic agonist

4.    It is used to treat asthma

5.    It is a adrenergic antagonist

         A = 1,4   B = 1,2   C = 2,3   D = 1,3   E = 4,5

_______________________________________________________________

Which of the following are true concerning Clonidine

1.is a α1 – selective adrenergic agonist

2.It is a α1, α2 - non selective adrenergic agonist

3.It is a α2 - selective agonist adrenergic agonist

4.It is used to treat hypertension

5.It causes miosis

          A = 1,5   B = 3,4   C = 2,4   D = 1,4   E = 4,5

Organophosphates:

1.    are ganglionic blockers

2.    increase acetylcholine concentration at the synapses

3.    cause bradycardia

4.    paralyse skeletal muscles

5.    block nicotinic receptors

A = 2,3,4   B = 1,2,3   C = 1,4,5   D = 3,4,5   E = 2,4,5



Labetalol:

1.       Is effective for treating hypertension

2.       Is contraindicated in asthma patients

3.       Is a selective α2-adrenergic antagonist

4.       Is contraindicated in pregnancy

5.       Does not induce postural hypotension.

 A = 4,5      B = 3,4      C = 2,3       D = 3,5       E = 1,2

____________________________________________________

Adrenaline is:

1.       Orally administered

2.       Metabolized by catechol-O-methyl transferase

3.       Metabolized by monoamine oxidase

4.       Metabolized by acetylcholinesterase

5.       A selective β-2-adrenergic agonist.

A = 2,4         B = 2,3        C = 3,4       D = 1,5      E = 2,5

____________________________________________________

The following drugs decreases the effects of propranolol:

1.       Rifampin

2.       Ritonavir

3.       Fluoxetine

4.       Cimetidine

5.       Phenytoin

A = 1,4              B = 3,5            C = 1,2           D = 1,5          E = 3,4

____________________________________________________

The rapid reversal of skeletal muscle relaxation by Sugammadex can be induced with:

1.       Mivacurium

2.       Cisatracurium

3.       Rocuronium

4.       Atracurium

5.       Vecuronium.

A = 3,5          B = 2,4          C = 1,3        D = 4,5       E = 2,3

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Scopolamine:

1.       Causes miosis

2.       Treats nausea associated with motion sickness

3.       Is effective in treating glaucoma

4.       Is an indirect-acting reversible cholinergic agonist
5.       Is a muscarinic receptor antagonist.

A = 2,5        B = 1,2       C = 1, 4       D = 3,4       E = 2,3

 ____________________________________________________

Fenoterol is:

1.       A short-acting β2 selective adrenergic agonist

2.       Mainly used to treat glaucoma

3.       A long-acting β2 selective adrenergic agonist

4.       Has minimal effects on the heart

5.       A short-acting non-selective β-adrenergic antagonist.

A = 1,4        B = 2,4       C = 2,5      D = 3,4     E = 1,2

 ___________________________________________________

      Tamsulosin is:

1.       A selective α2-adrenergic agonist

2.       A reversible indirect-acting cholinergic agonist

3.       Used in the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy

4.       A selective α1-adrenergic antagonist

5.       Used to treat asthma.

A = 4,5         B = 1,3       C = 3,5       D = 1,5      E = 3,4

____________________________________________________

  Atracurium:

1.       Is metabolized by plasma cholinesterase

2.       Can be safely used in patients with renal failure

3.       Is a short-acting neuromuscular blocker

4.       Is an irreversible indirect-acting cholinergic agonist

5.       Is a drug of choice in the management of glaucoma.

A = 1,4       B = 3,5       C = 1,2      D = 1,5     E = 3,4

___________________________________________________

Glycopyrrolate:

1.       Is a tertiary amine compound

2.       Is used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis

3.       Crosses the blood-brain-barrier

4.       Is used as an anti-sialogogue

5.       Has high affinity for muscarinic receptors.

A = 2,5           B = 1,3       C = 4,5        D = 2,4       E = 1,2,3

 ____________________________________________________

 The non-steroidal, non-depolarising neuromuscular junction blockers include:

1.       Pancuronium

2.       Cisatracurium

3.       Rocuronium

4.       Mivacurium

5.       Vecuronium.

A = 1,3          B = 2,3        C = 1,2        D= 2,4      E = 4,5

____________________________________________________

Descriptive Questions:

Give the mechanism of action of doxazosin in the treatment of benign prostatic.                 

Give the reason why beta blockers do not induce postural hypotension. 
                          

Give two reasons why ephedrine has a long duration of action.                                    

Mention two long-acting β2 selective adrenergic agonists used as bronchodilators.   

Cardiovascular System
Multiple Choice Questions


The following drugs are oral anticoagulants:

1.       Aspirin

2.       Rivaroxaban

3.       Dabigatran

4.       Heparin

5.       Warfarin

A = 1,2,3      B = 2,3,5             C = 2,3,4       D = 3,4,5     E = All of the above

 __________________________________________________________

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors (ACEI’s) should be used in the treatment of the following diseases except:

1.      Left ventricular hypertrophy

2.      Diabetic nephropathy

3.      Hypertension in pregnancy

4.      Hypertension

5.      Congestive heart failure

A = 4             B = 1,2        C = 1                  D = 2           E = 3

 _____________________________________________________________

A drug that prevents conduction of impulses in the AV node is:

1.      Perindopril

2.      Flecainide

3.      Lidocaine

4.      Quinidine

5.      Verapamil

A = 1            B = 2          C = 3           D = 4           E = 5

___________________________________________________________________

Which drug may cause reflex tachycardia and/or postural hypotension on initial administration?

1.       Atenolol

2.       Hydrochlorothiazide

3.       Metoprolol

4.       Prazosin

5.       Verapamil

A = 1          B = 2          C = 3           D = 4           E = 5

 ________________________________________________________________

26.    Which is an appropriate choice for hypertension treatment during pregnancy?

1.      Methyldopa

2.      Fosinopril

3.      Enalapril

4.      Valsartan

5.      Reserpine

 A = 1,2         B = 2,3                  C = 3,4                   D = 4                   E = 5

___________________________________________________________________

Name two (2) therapeutic uses of atenolol.


Ticagrelor:

1.       Is an nonthienopyridine P2Y12 inhibitor

2.       Is metabolized by CYP 3A4

3.       Bleeding is the major side effect

4.       Is used in the treatment of unstable angina

5.       Is used in the treatment of ST elevation myocardial infarct

A = 1,2         B = 2,3,4      C = 3,4,5      D = 1, 4,5     E = All of the above

 ___________________________________________________________________

ACEI’s should be used in the treatment of following diseases except:

1.       Left ventricular hypertrophy

2.       Diabetic nephropathy

3.       Hypertension in pregnancy

4.       Hypertension

5.       Angioedema

A = 3,4         B = 1,2          C = 1,3                D = 2,4        E = 3,5

 __________________________________________________________________

The following statement is true about ACE inhibitors:

1.       Can be safely used in pregnant hypertensive women

2.       Blocks angiotensin II receptors

3.       May induce an angioedema

4.       First choice of treatment of hypertension in diabetic patients

5.       Renal failure can occur in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis

A = 1,5                  B = 2,4          C = 2,3       D = 3,4,5                 E = 5

 ____________________________________________________________________

A patient presents with a dry cough and facial swelling. The drug most likely causing this adverse effect is:

1.       Carvedilol

2.       Furosemide

3.       Enalapril

4.       Digoxin

5.       Spironolactone

A = 1           B = 2           C = 3                   D = 4           E = 5

_____________________________________________________________________

The following medicines are inhibitors of the metabolism of amlodipine by the cytochrome P450 iso-enzymes:

1.       Erythromycin 

2.       Ciprofloxacin

3.       Proteases inhibitors

4.       Cimetidine

5.       Isoniazid

A = 1,2,3,4      B = 2,3,4,5      C = 2,3,5      D = 1,2,3         E = All of the above

 ____________________________________________________________________

Which of the following drugs is not suitable for chronic oral therapy of arrhythmias?

1.       Amiodarone

2.       Disopyramide

3.       Lidocaine

4.       Quinidine

5.       Verapamil

A = 1            B = 2          C = 3         D = 4           E = 5

 ___________________________________________________________________

Which of the following drugs are correctly paired with its effects?

1.       Quinidine: shortens phase 3 repolarization

2.       Flecainide: slows phase 0 depolarization

3.       Amiodarone: prolongs phase 3 repolarization

4.       Lidocaine: prolongs phase 3 repolarization

5.       Metoprolol: prolongs phase 0 depolarization

A = 1,5             B = 2,4         C = 2,3                D = 4,5        E = All of the above

_____________________________________________________________________

Which of the following drugs do not prolong the action potential duration?

1.       Amiodarone

2.       Procainamide

3.       Lidocaine

4.       Quinidine

5.       Sotalol

A = 1            B = 2           C = 3                  D = 4           E = 5

 ____________________________________________________________________

24.    Recognized adverse effects of quinidine include which one of the following?

1.       Cinchonism

2.       Constipation

3.       Lupus erythematosus

4.       Increase in digoxin clearance

5.       Pulmonary fibrosis

A = 1                    B = 2          C = 3           D = 4           E = 5

____________________________________________________________________

 A drug that prevents conduction of impulses in the AV node is:

1.       Perindopril

2.       Flecainide

3.       Lidocaine

4.       Quinidine

5.       Verapamil

A = 1            B = 2          C = 3           D = 4           E = 5

___________________________________________________________________

 The mechanism of action of digitalis glycosides is associated with:

1.       A decrease in calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum

2.       An increase in ATP synthesis

3.       A modification of the actin molecule

4.       An increase in systolic cytoplasmic calcium levels

5.       A block of cardiac β adrenoceptors

 A = 1            B = 2         C = 3           D = 4                   E = 5

 _________________________________________________________________

In the treatment of hypertension:

1.       β- blockers are indicated in anxious patients

2.       Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors will not be effective

3.       Methyldopa is the drug of choice during pregnancy

4.       L-Dopa is the drug of choice in patients who also have diabetes mellitus

5.       a-Blockers are contra-indicated

 A = 1,2        B = 1,3       C = 2,4                   D = 4,5        E = 3,5

____________________________________________________________

Acute attacks of angina can be treated with?

1.       Sublingual nitrates

2.       Propranolol

3.       Verapamil

4.       Hydrochlorothiazide

5.       Perindopril

 A = 1,2        B = 2,3                   C = 1,3                   D = 1                   E = 3,4

___________________________________________________________

 In which of the following conditions are b adrenergic blockers use therapeutically:

1.      Myocardial infarction

2.      Supraventricular tachycardia

3.      Hypertension

4.      Angina pectoris

5.      Migraine prophylaxis

A = 1,2,3      B = 1,2,3,4    C = 1,2,4    D = 1,2,3,5  #E = all of the above

The following drug is useful for chronic prophylaxis of angina:

A.      Long acting nitrate

B.      Heparin

C.      Thiazide diuretic

D.      Alpha blocker

E.       Digoxin

A = 1                   B = 2           C = 3            D = 4  E = 5

______________________________________________________________

 ACEI’s should be used in the treatment of following diseases except:

1.       Left ventricular hypertrophy

2.       Diabetic nephropathy

3.       Hypertension in pregnancy

4.       Hypertension

5.       Congestive heart failure

A = 4         B = 1,2            C = 1                  D = 2           E = 3

_____________________________________________________________________

The following statement is true about ACE inhibitors:

1.       Can be safely used in pregnant hypertensive women

2.       Blocks angiotensin II receptors

3.       May induce an angioedema

4.       First choice of treatment of hypertension in diabetic patients

5.       Renal failure can occur in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis

A = 1,5                  B = 2,4                    C = 2,3       # D = 3,4,5                E = 5

_____________________________________________________________________

A patient presents with a dry cough and facial swelling. The drug most likely causing this adverse effect is:

1.    Carvedilol

2.    Furosemide

3.    Perindopril

4.    Digoxin

5.    Spironolactone

A = 1           B = 2           C = 3                   D = 4           E = 5

_____________________________________________________________________

The following drugs are cytochrome P450 iso-enzymes  inducers:

1.       Erythromycin 

2.       Rifampicin

3.       Proteases inhibitors

4.       Phenobarbital

5.       Isoniazid

A = 1,4           B = 2,3          C = 2,4      D = 1,2,3         E = All of the above

_____________________________________________________________________

The following is true of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN):

1.       It is taken orally

2.       It is absorbed slowly

3.       Decreases conduction in AV node

4.       It causes vasodilatation of vascular smooth muscle

5.       It causes constriction of vascular smooth muscle.

A = 1           B = 2           C = 3            D = 4         E = 5

____________________________________________________________________

A drug that prevents conduction of impulses in the AV node is:

1.       Perindopril

2.       Flecainide

3.       Lidocaine

4.       Quinidine

5.       Verapamil

A = 1            B = 2          C = 3           D = 4           E = 5

___________________________________________________________________

Verapamil:

1.       Causes vasoconstriction

2.       Is a positive inotrope

3.       Increases AV condction

4.       Is an alpha-2 antagonist

5.       Is contraindicated in WPW syndrome

A = 1           B = 2           C = 3            D = 4               E = 5

__________________________________________________________________

 In the treatment of hypertension:

1.       β- blockers are indicated in anxious patients

2.       Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors will not be effective

3.       Methyldopa is the drug of choice during pregnancy

4.       L-Dopa is the drug of choice in patients who also have diabetes mellitus

5.       a-Blockers are contra-indicated

A = 1,2        B = 1,3       C = 2,4                   D = 4,5        E = 3,5

__________________________________________________________________

27.    Acute attacks of angina can be treated with?

1.       Sublingual nitrates

2.       Propranolol

3.       Verapamil

4.    Hydrochlorothiazide

5.       Perindopril

A = 1         B = 2           C = 3           D = 4           E = 5

______________________________________________________________

28.    The following statement about digoxin is true:

1.       It has a low therapeutic index

2.       It is a positive inotropic drug

3.       Decreases AV conduction

4.       It is a positive chronotropic drug

5.       Drugs causing hyperkalaemia predispose to digoxin toxicity

A = 1,3,4                B = 1,2,3              C = 3,4,5                 D = 4,5       E = 4,5

 ____________________________________________________________________

29.    Which one of the following is most likely to contribute to the arrhythmogenic effect of digoxin?

1.       Increased vagal discharge

2.       Increased intracellular calcium

3.       Decreased sympathetic discharge

4.       Increased extracellular magnesium

5.       Increased extracellular potassium

A = 1            B = 2                 C = 3           D = 4           E = 5


The following drug is useful for prophylaxis of chronic angina:

1.       Long acting nitrate

2.       Heparin

3.       Thiazide diuretic

4.       Prazosin

5.       Digoxin.

A = 1            B = 2           C = 3           D = 4         E = 5

_______________________________________________

 Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEI) should not be used in the treatment of the following diseases :

1.       Left ventricular hypertrophy

2.       Diabetic nephropathy

3.       Hypertension in pregnancy

4.       Hypertension

5.       Congestive heart failure.

A = 1         B = 2         C = 3          D = 4           E = 5

_______________________________________________

The following statement are true about ACE inhibitors:

1.       Dry cough is a side effect

2.       Block angiotensin-2-receptors converting enzyme

3.       May induce an gioedema

4.       First choice of treatment of hypertension in diabetic patients

5.       Renal failure can occur in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis.

A = 1,2,3        B = 2,3,4    C = 3 ,4,5     D = 4,5    E = 1,3,4,5

_______________________________________________

A patient presents with a dry cough and facial swelling. The drug most likely causing this adverse effect is:

1.       Carvedilol

2.       Furosemide

3.       Enalapril

4.       Digoxin

5.       Spironolactone.

A = 1           B = 2           C = 3           D = 4           E = 5

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 The following drugs are cytochrome P450 iso-enzyme  inhibitors:

1.       Erythromycin 

2.       Rifampicin

3.       Protease inhibitors

4.       Phenobarbital

5.       Isoniazide

A = 2,4     B = 2,3     C = 1,3,5        D = 1,2,3          E = All of the above

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 A drug that prevents conduction of impulses in the AV node is/are:

1.       Perindopril

2.       Digoxin

3.       Lidocaine

4.       Nitroglycerine

5.       Bisoprolol.

A = 1,2        B = 2,4        C = 3           D = 4     E = 2,5

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Verapamil:

1.       Causes vasoconstriction

2.       Is a positive inotrope

3.       Increases AV conduction

4.       Is an alpha-2 antagonist

5.       Is a negative inotrope.

A = 1           B = 2           C = 3            D = 4               E = 5

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In the treatment of hypertension:

1.       β-blockers are the drug of choice in diabetic patients

2.       Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors will not be effective

3.       Methyldopa is the drug of choice during pregnancy

4.       L-Dopa is the drug of choice in patients who also have diabetes mellitus

5.       β-Blockers are the first choice of treatment in asthmatic patients.

A = 1           B = 2          C = 3         D = 4           E = 5

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To prevent emboli a patient should use warfarin unless there are contraindications  like:

1.       Pregnancy

2.       Active bleeding

3.       Peptic ulcer

4.       Recently cardiopulmonary resuscitation

5.       Active pulmonary TB.

A = 1,2,5      B = 2,3,4     C = 1,2,4      D = 3,4,5     E = All of the above

 ___________________________________________________

Clopidogrel is:

1.       An antiplatelet drug

2.       An anticoagulant

3.       A direct thrombin inhibitor

4.       A fibrinolytic drug

5.       An plasminogen inhibitor.

A=1           B=2             C=3             D=4             E=5

 _______________________________________________

The following are contraindications to fybrinolitic therapy:

1.       Severe hypertension >200/120

2.       Active bleeding or hemorrhagic disorder

3.       Previous cerebrovascular accident or active intracranial process

4.       Surgery within 10 days

5.       Prolonged cardio pulmonary resuscitation (CRP).

A = 1,3,4      B = 2,3,4      C = 1,3,5    D = 1,3,4,5   E = All of the above

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Which of the following constitutes an added risk of digoxin toxicity?

1.       Administration of captopril

2.       Hypokalaemia

3.       Administration of lidocaine

4.       Administration of losartan

5.       Hypocalcaemia.

A = 1            B = 2          C = 3             D = 4          E = 5

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Successful therapy of heart failure with digoxin will result in which of the following?

1.       Increased contractility of the heart

2.       Decreased parasympathetic outflow

3.       Increased aldosterone

4.       Increased renin secretion

5.       Increased sympathetic outflow to the heart.

A = 1          B = 2         C = 3           D = 4           E = 5

 _______________________________________________

Warfarin:

1.       Is a platelet antagonist

2.       It is an anticoagulant drug

3.       Rifampicin will potentiate the effect of warfarin

4.       The effect of warfarin is monitored using thromboplastin time

5.       Is safe during pregnancy.

A = 1            B = 2        C = 3             D = 4                 E = 5

_______________________________________________

Atenolol:

1.       Is the drug of choice for treating anaphylactic shock

2.       Is useful for treating urinary retention

3.       Can be used to stop labour

4.       Increases gastric motility

5.       Is a cardioselective beta-blocker.

A = 1           B = 2           C = 3            D = 4       E = 5

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 Descriptive Questions:

Explain why  non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID) should be used with extreme caution together with ACEI’s and diuretics?    

Name three (3) therapeutic uses of perindopril.         

Name three (3) therapeutic uses of the calcium channel blocking drugs.